A primer and discussion of the 14th Amendment, Section 1.

Shut up cunt. The big boys are talking. You aren't smart enough to hold a conversation about such technical things.

You are so clueless. Are you the dumbest person on the planet?

You are the one claiming that citizens means all persons.
 

If formal citizenship was a requirement for those wishing to vote, yet women weren't permitted to vote, then technically women were "persons", not "citizens." Again, becoming a citizen in the 1800s was not the same as becoming a citizen today. If you lived and worked here you were considered a citizen. Read those paragraphs over and over until you get it.
 
What are these "certain rights" you keep bloviating about? Illegals only have the right to due process. They do not have Constitutional rights.

Due Process is a CONSTITUTIONAL RIGHT you fucking dump fuck. Do you realize how imbecilic you sound?
 
No need for a "full stop". That's why the semi colon was used. So simple. It was a continuation of the same activity.

Then the phrasing should have continued with the word "citizen" rather than "person." What was the point in repeating the same idea with a different word?
 
What are these "certain rights" you keep bloviating about? Illegals only have the right to due process. They do not have Constitutional rights.

Are you claiming Congress can pass a law restricting free speech or religion of non-citizens? For a so-called conservative you sure want to give the government oppressive powers. Where does the 1st Amendment which prohibits Congress from restricting speech or religion make an exception for non-citizens?

I thought conservatives wanted to stick with the plain language of the Constitution--I know I do.
 
In the context of this Article they are one and the same because of the use of the semi colon.

Do you think the rider just did that for fun. What’s the intent of the word? Why separate out three different categories if they were all relating to the same people?

Those who write legislation do not Dussault frivolously. Your argument is stupid. Plain and simple stupid. You have to do crazy gymnastics and make silly arguments to get the results you are looking for.
 
Just to stir the pot, who cares about citizenship in 1800's? What matters is the definition and laws that apply to it TODAY.
 
Article two of the 14th amendment outlawed unfair discrimination by the government. It is a brilliantly written two Sentences.
 
No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws."

No state shall...Citizens of the United States.
Nor shall any state... Any Person...
Nor deny... any person within its jurisdiction.




You idiots see, the writer defined three categories of people and limited government action with regard to each catagory.

We have "Citizens."
We have "Any People."
We have "Any People within its Jurisdiction."

The Government cannot make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States.

The Government cannot deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.

The Government cannot deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.

And it's all based on the opening statement. These persons are citizens and the Article continues to address these persons.
"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the state wherein they reside. No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States;"
 
And it's all based on the opening statement. These persons are citizens and the Article continues to address these persons.
""All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the state wherein they reside. No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States;"

You are a fucking dumbass, The first sentence does not say all people are citizens, read it again. It says all people who meet certain criteria are citizens.
 
And it's all based on the opening statement. These persons are citizens and the Article continues to address these persons.
"All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the state wherein they reside. No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States;"
This was the intent of the Founding Fathers and is worded to include “all persons born or ...”
 
But he is. You are not arguing the law--you are just arguing because you disagree with the law. You are one of those trans lefty types who claim you support the "rule of law" until you disagree with it.

The point is that the child is a citizen because he was born here.

Most of us are citizens because of birthright citizenship. Most first generation immigrants did not become citizens but their children (and us) were citizens because they were born here.

But, I believe that most all of those immigrants were here legally though, no?
 
You idiots pretend the writer of the 14th simply wrote something differently than he wrote. You display your ignorance to promote unconstitutional discrimination.
 
Because the rules about citizenship were different in the mid-1800s. See this paragraph in post 50. Women couldn't vote in 1868.

I understand, but that does not mean they did not have the protection of life, liberty and property which I was responding to.

I think your source about needing citizenship to vote was somewhat too broad:

"Historically, over 40 states or territories, including colonies before the Declaration of Independence, have at some time given at least some aliens voting rights in some or all elections.[9][10][11][12] For example, in 1875, the Supreme Court in Minor v. Happersett noted that "citizenship has not in all cases been made a condition precedent to the enjoyment of the right of suffrage. Thus, in Missouri, persons of foreign birth, who have declared their intention to become citizens of the United States, may under certain circumstances vote."[13]

By 1900, nearly half of the states and territories had some experience with voting by aliens, and for some the experience lasted more than half a century.[14] At the turn of the twentieth century, anti-immigration feeling ran high, and Alabama stopped allowing aliens to vote by way of a constitutional change in 1901; Colorado followed suit in 1902, Wisconsin in 1908, and Oregon in 1914.[15] Just as the nationalism unleashed by the War of 1812 helped to reverse the alien suffrage policies inherited from the late eighteenth century, World War I caused a sweeping retreat from the progressive alien suffrage policies of the late nineteenth century.[16] In 1918, Kansas, Nebraska, and South Dakota all changed their constitutions to purge alien suffrage, and Texas ended the practice of noncitizen voting in primary elections by statute.[15] Indiana and Texas joined the trend in 1921, followed by Mississippi in 1924 and, finally, Arkansas in 1926.[17] In 1931, political scientist Leon Aylsworth noted that "[f]or the first time in over a hundred years, a national election was held in 1928 in which no alien in any state had the right to cast a vote for a candidate for any office – national, state, or local."

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Right_of_foreigners_to_vote_in_the_United_States
 
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