I already did: Great Britain, Japan, Germany, and France -- you know, the other large, wealthy countries.
And again, Great Britain is not that far off of ours. That said, with our GDP it shouldn't be as high.
In the link I provided in the post to which you're replying. It's in the first table, the last column, under "average total federal tax rate."
Which is NOT the EFFECTIVE tax rate.
In theory, you could bump it enough for the higher incomes to make it work in a rough way, but then what you're basically talking about is a two-bracket system, which is a pretty blunt instrument. Why not fine tune it with more brackets? Or, better yet, come up with a smooth-curve formula.
No it is not blunt. The system would work just as it does now. Employers don't start taxing you once you clear the standard deduction. They multiply your earnings for the period by the number of pay periods you have in total for the year. Then they calculate the tax and take it out over the course the year.
Good plan, since I just eyeballed it. Let's do the actual math. Here's the distribution:
https://www2.census.gov/programs-surveys/cps/tables/hinc-06/2018/hinc06.xls
OK. So, if the first $60k is tax free, then about 49% of households will pay no federal taxes (not just no federal income taxes). All the households earning less than $250k (95.6% of all the households) would, combined, pay $721.5 billion. That works out to a tax rate of about 10.5%, average. So, the problem isn't what I thought it was: that it would be a tax hike for some people in that group. Rather, the problem is that it would devastate revenues.
First, NO... the first $60k isn't tax free. It is federal income tax free. It is no different than the current standard deduction other than in the amount.
Second, correct, it isn't a tax hike on them. If you check revenue I would bet you the numbers are indeed slightly lower for the group under $250k, which is my purpose, to make it PROGRESSIVE.
Third, funny how you stopped and didn't look at what happens to those over $250k. Especially those over $500k. Their effective tax rates are going to go north of 25% and in most cases push towards the 30%. But you ignore that.
Why not? It's a simple and elegant fix, which is akin to what we already did with Medicare.
Because we do not have to. If we use the doughnut hole, we install a SS tax of say 2-3% on income over $500k, that will take care of the problem. Why are you so eager to tax the upper end of middle income families?
Because there aren't all that many people over $500k, so if you're looking to collect enough to keep in solvent, you really want people paying in between the current tax cap and $500k, which is a whole lot more people.
Yes, it is more people. Funny how you don't look at changes to taxes that way when income brackets are lowered. You always proclaim its a tax cut to the rich, because they get so much more per capita.
But we don't need to tax MORE people. It is a short term problem with SS. Medicare was a massive problem and everyone had to see that increase, we still need to increase it to cover it. SS is not that big a problem.
Why not?
It could be based on unearned income, too.
It could. It would resolve the problem for sure that way, but then I would decrease the current cap to save more money for the middle income families and again use the doughnut hole.
Technically, it's a three-tier bracket, in that it's 0% up to a level, then 20%, then an extra 10%. But the devil's in the details. By taking out most of the brackets, you've made it a clumsier instrument, which will make it hard to achieve decent revenue numbers without either soaking the poor, or creating a brutal cliff where suddenly you cross a particular threshold and tax rates are vastly higher. Why not go with a smoother change, rather than a fairly arbitrary sharp change at one particular dollar figure (or rather two). For example, if it makes sense for a couple that earns $70,000 to pay a bit more than one that earns $60,000, then why doesn't it make sense for a couple that earns $60,000 to pay a bit more than one that earns $50,000? And if it makes sense for the effective rate to be higher on someone who earns $550,000 than someone who earns $500,000, then why doesn't it make sense for the effective rate on someone who earns $500,000 to be that much higher than on someone who earns $450,000 (rather than both paying the same 20% on all income over the standard deduction). I'd rather have a consistent approach where the effective rate rises fairly smoothly from zero to a theoretical maximum of 100% at infinity, as you go up in income.
Wrong. Again, there is no 'brutal cliff'. It is calculated the same way as employers currently do. Current pay times the number of pay periods. Then they see what total tax would be and assess that in proportion to the current paycheck.
If you actually do the math, the effective rate using my proposal IS VERY SMOOTH.
Do the math on it. Obviously the first $60k for a couple is easy. It is zero.
If they make 70k... they owe a total of $2k over the course of the year. Effective rate is 2.8%
80k is 5%
90k is 6.67%
100k is 8%
110k is 9.09%
120k is 10%
Etc....